Isabella is an adaptation of a story from Bocaccio’s Decameron, a 14th century Italian allegory; Keats used an anonymous translation into English prose from 1620 to render the story into English verse. With no direct contact with the source language, Keats created an entirely new interpretation of the story in Isabella. However, Isabella is not a complete departure from the source; Keats maintains a sense of the foreign setting and culture, and refers back to the original through interjections. The strong sense of time and place is evident in his use of classical allusions and references to Italy (ex: “some high noble and his olive-trees” 168). The classical references also add a sense of locality, recalling the Roman predecessors of the Italians. In stanza 13, Keats connects Isabella to Dido, at once elevating Isabella’s love for Lorenzo to Dido’s love for Aeneas, and foreshadowing their tragic end. In his interjections, the most obvious references to his source, Keats asserts his creative license for interpretation while recognizing Bocaccio’s influence. In stanzas 19 and 20, Keats addresses Boccacio, asking his forgiveness for adapting his prose into verse: “it is done- succeed the verse or fail- / To honour thee, and thy gone spirit greet” (157-158).
Do you think Keats’ recognition of the Decameron is an attempt to add a layer of historical authority to his poem? How do you interpret Keats’ choice to emphasize his source of inspiration?
Initially I thought that Keats was inspired by the Decameron story. I assumed he modeled Isabella after Decameron because he thought he could take the idea a step farther. However, reading stanzas XIX and XX, I grew skeptical. In those stanzas he directly addressed Boccaccio and asks forgiveness for writing Boccaccio's story. It seems to me that such a message is best conveyed in a polite forward, or in a professional letter to Boccaccio. At least he could have put it at the beginning so as not to slow the pace of the poem. This lead me to believe that these stanzas have a deeper meaning. The first few lines of stanza XIX are overdone; it seems like he's making fun of Boccaccio. And the final lines of stanza XIX are hard to misinterpret: "For venturing syllables that ill beseem / The quiet glooms of such a piteous theme." The ill fitting syllables, I assume, are from Boccaccio's writing. Ultimately I am left confused. Is Keats poking fun at romanticism through this story?
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